Hi, I’m pretty new to JMP and had a question about interpreting regression vs orthogonalized effects.
I ran a 3-factor, 3-level DOE (X, Y, Z) using simulations to look at main effects and interactions on a response (force). I was missing a few runs, so the design isn’t fully orthogonal.
I used Fit Model to run a regression and got the usual outputs (Estimate, t Ratio, Prob>|t|). I also looked at the Effect Screening / Pareto plot, which uses orthogonally coded effects.
I’m a bit confused about what I should actually be using:
- For deciding whether an effect is significant, should I rely on the regular regression output (p-values), or the orthogonalized ones?
- For reporting how large an effect is on the response, is it better to use the regression coefficients, the orthogonal coded values, or something like the predicted change across the factor range?
- When JMP reports orthogonally coded effects, are those still based on the centered (X − mean)(Y − mean) type terms, or does the orthogonalization change the reference point used for interpreting interactions?
I just want to make sure I’m interpreting everything correctly given that the design isn’t perfectly orthogonal.
Thanks!