I am having a hard time explaining to myself (thus others) how to interpret a Tukey's HSD test between 3 treatment groups, when the letter assignment goes like this:

I understand how there isn't enough of a difference between Level 1 subgroup and Level 3 subgroup means to say they are different when viewed pairwise, same with Level 2 and Level 3, while the difference between Level 1 and Level 2 is great enough they are considered different distributions.
However, considering the situation 'as a whole', is it correct to say the Level 3 subgroup distribution is it's own entity because it appears to contain members both from the Level 1 distribution, and Level 2? In other words I can conclude each treatment level has done something 'unique' to each subgroup, because Level 3's distribution is a 'hybrid' of the other 2?
I am trying to resolve a contradiction I see where if either Level 1 or Level 2 is excluded from the analysis, which could have happened in real life if the experiment budget was smaller (and those samples were never made), then Level 3 is judged 'insignificantly different' from either of the other two levels. It is only analyzing all 3 subgroups together Level 3's 'uniqueness' is determined. What 'is' the Level 3 distribution, with respect to the Level 1 and Level 2 distributions?