Maybe I'm just having a stroke. Was hoping for someone to confirm/deny this to me.
The standardization is such that the numerator and the denominator have the same units, so the units 'cancel' and the result is 'unitless' or 'scale invariant.'
That is a YES.
https://community.jmp.com/t5/Discussions/What-s-the-difference-between-scaled-estimates-and-standardized/td-p/1176
Saw that, still asked. So that's a yes right?
Thanks @Mark_Bailey and @Byron_JMP
I have someone that won't believe me. Y'all have any way that I can prove this to them? To give a little context they're trying to divide scaled estimates by RMSE to create a pseudo "Z-score".
*Edit* did this and made them amtch, so doesn't that mean that each scaled estimate is in the units of Y (height in this case)?
Names default to here( 1 ); dt = open("$SAMPLE_DATA\Big Class.jmp"); dt << New Column("Scaled height", <<Formula((:height-ColMean(:height))/((:ColMax(:height)-ColMin(:weight))/2)) ); dt << New Column("Scaled weight", <<Formula((:weight-ColMean(:weight))/((:ColMax(:weight)-ColMin(:weight))/2)) ); dt << Fit Model( Y( :height ), Effects( :Scaled weight ), Personality( "Standard Least Squares" ), Emphasis( "Effect Leverage" ), Run() ); dt << Fit Model( Y( :height ), Effects( :weight ), Personality( "Standard Least Squares" ), Emphasis( "Effect Leverage" ), Run(Scaled Estimates(1)) );