Below are two plots for logistic regression with the one on the left for ordinal response and the one on the right for the multinominal response. They both have k-1 curves with k being the number of levels but are both of them accumulative in terms of probability interpretation? In other words, the probability at a certain X value (car weight) on each curve is the overall probability for the car size at that level and the all the levels below that? If both the ordinal plots and nominal plots are interpreted the same way to get the probability for certain car type at certain weight value, why the two plots look very differently? is it simply because the type of response with one being ordinal and the other nominal? I had an impression that JMP recommend to use ordinal logistic regression even for nominal response since it is easier to analyze and interpret. However, if the results will be very different like shown here, one should not use ordinal logistic regression for nominal response. Any comments will be appreciated. Thanks.
