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Independence of observation

Hello everyone,

I am analyzing data with multiple regression with a population of 500 people. However, the first 250 rows contain only men, and the other half (the other 250 people) are women. The men receive salary bonuses, whereas women do not. It is not specified whether all of the people work in the same place or not. So, I am not sure whether this assumption is fulfilled or not. Even if let's say that the people did not work in one place, could the fact that data was presented in that way (first men, then women) mean that there is no independence?

Even more, there are no other patterns between the bonus payments to salary, overtime hours,etc. Meaning that in this data, women do in fact receive no bonuses.

Analytics

Re: Independence of observation

Hi Borislav,
This seems to be more a question about data collection than about data analysis. Some of the obvious questions would be about the different job types (e.g., sales vs. support) , exempt vs. non-exempt employees, etc...
Thus, if you believe your data collection, there is an obvious conclusion you can draw.
Best,
TS

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