Hello everyone,
I am analyzing data with multiple regression with a population of 500 people. However, the first 250 rows contain only men, and the other half (the other 250 people) are women. The men receive salary bonuses, whereas women do not. It is not specified whether all of the people work in the same place or not. So, I am not sure whether this assumption is fulfilled or not. Even if let's say that the people did not work in one place, could the fact that data was presented in that way (first men, then women) mean that there is no independence?
Even more, there are no other patterns between the bonus payments to salary, overtime hours,etc. Meaning that in this data, women do in fact receive no bonuses.
This certainly sounds like the data was sorted (by gender?). That doesn't tell you how it was collected, but I think probably accounts for why it appears in this form. But I find it hard to believe that all of the mean received bonuses and none of the women. Even the most egregious discriminatory practice is unlikely to show up like this for 250 people of each gender. So, I think independence is not the first question I would be asking about this data.
