Perhaps this represents a trivial question but, if I have two subsets determined by an independent variable of a sample population, which are statistically distinct with respect to a common numerical response variable and wanted to extrapolate (convert) between the two, a simple way might be to add (or subtract) the difference between the respective medians (the populations are not normally distributed) to or from that of the subset one was wanting to convert. However, this would convey the variance of the starting subset to the converted set, which would not be a true conversion, or would it?
To better explain this, my example evaluates the valve replacement size accommodated for replacement valves in two random subsets (those receiving either valve type A or valve type
of patients otherwise controlled for confounding covariates. If I wanted to extrapolate which valve type B sizes would be suitable in the subgroup receiving valve type A, I am assuming that the variance in the extrapolated group should be the same as for the reference group, but can I simply use the difference in medians to calculate the conversion?
I've read a bit about inverse transform sampling and wondered if that may provide a more accurate transformation across the range of sizes. Is there a simple approach to this that I could follow using JMP?